How do you respond to the claim that Israel needed to defend itself during the 1948

Zionists have often claimed that in 1948 Israel was justified in defending itself against the arab countries that started the war and have proclaimed intent on committing genocide against the jewish population?

While I know that the attack on Deir Yassin by zionist militia happened before the war started, and I vaguely remember plan Dalet though I've forgotten much of the details, its undeniably true that genocidal language was used by arab leaders to rally against Israel, like statements to "wipe out the jews" and I don't know how to respond to it.

I think that even if Israel was justified in defending itself in that instance, that doesn't justify wiping out Palestinian villages and preventing the inhabitants and their descendants from returning home despite most of the houses still being uninhabited.